On the post “Does ‘Body Count’ Matter?” MH commented the following, in part:
“And, yes, that guidance is given in reference to the woman—but only a man could take a woman’s virginity, so to do so was to sin against (do wrong to) that woman’s father and future husband and shame her, and there were penalties for it.”
This raises an interesting question:
If only a man can take a woman’s virginity, then Biblically speaking it would seem impossible for two women to have “sex” as defined by the Law… what are the implications of that for f/f conduct?
Not advocating; just putting the question out there.
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